Truly tiny point (you know how I love to strain at 'em!):
In the Dawkins reading that I mentioned yesterday, he at one point says "circa," but pronounces it "kirka." I was unable to stop pondering this all day today.
None of the dictionaries that I looked at, both online and here at home, provide this alternate pronunciation. Not even the OED.
Thus, I turned to the preeminent source for all matters linguistic, and asked, "Could it be that Dawkins is imperfect?" Dan replied:
I'm afraid he is perfect, if a bit pretentious. The classical pronunciation (as best as scholars can determine), used during Roman times, was "kirka", spelt "circa". Then in the Middle Ages it was changed variously to "chirka", "tsirka", or "sirka", depending on the local vernacular).
That sure sounds good.
I Googled "circa kirka" and found two pertinent hits before I lost patience paging through the results. One used it in passing as an example, on page 48 of a MEGO-inducing rant about phonetics when Hebrew and English are both involved. The title of the work is Glorious Incomprehensible, so I hope you'll forgive my lack of attention.
The other merely noted the utterance by a college English professor. This prof apparently had a reputation for obscure, and correct, alternate pronunciations. One of the commenters on this post does say something along the lines of Dan's explanation.
To put this issue to bed (as if you all aren't already asleep), I'd like to hear if any of you have ever heard a (smart) person pronounce "circa" as "kirka." It would be especially interesting to hear from the British contingent of the reading masses.
Thanks!
